body: Company A is selling products to Company B at a highly discounted price. Part of the agreement is that Company B cannot resell the products.
  
  
  Consider the following clause in a contract between the two companies:
  
  
  
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  > Company B may not resell any products purchased from Company A at a discounted price.
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  Now consider the same clause, but with a reason provided:
  
  
  
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  > In order to prevent toilets from overflowing, Company B may not resell any products purchased from Company A at a discounted price.
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  Suppose the 2nd clause is in effect and Company B goes ahead and turns a profit by reselling the discounted products. However, no toilets overflowed as a result of this action. Is the clause weakened (harder to enforce) due to a nonsensible reason being provided?
  
  
  Obviously the "reason" is hypothetical, but I believe the question stays the same if you substitute anything in its place that did not occur as a result of the resale.
  
  
  
title: Can a contract clause be weakened by providing a nonsensible reason for it?