body: This is a specific question about English Construction Law. 
  
  
  * Domestic client
  * JCT ICD Contract (with provisions for adjudication)
  
  
  Although I may have misconstrued the point, I've read somewhere that domestic clients don't have a right to adjudication. But surely they do if the contract says they do ?!?!
  
  
  EDIT:
  
  
  In the specific example which prompted the question, having reached practical completion the Employer has taken possession and so is *now* 'resident owner' - but they lived elsewhere at the time the JCT Intermediate Contract was let, having purchased the property shortly before instructing the works. So, it's not (what I would understand by the term) 'a resident owner contract', and the Employer wasn't 'a resident owner' when the contract began.
  
  
  Does that have any bearing on the matter?
  
  
  
title: In English Construction Law, does a domestic client have a right to adjudication if the agreed form of contract provides for it