body: (f) A person is presumed to intend to defraud or harm another if the person acts with respect to two or more writings of the same type and if each writing is a government record listed in Section 37.01(2)(C).
  
  
  Does this mean if a person had only one counterfeit bill then they would not be presumed to have intent to defraud? I apologize if there's something here I'm missing..... 
  
  
  
title: Question on intent in Texas forgery case