body: I was wondering if a person could be charged with selling something like drugs, illegal firearms, or stolen items if they are never caught possessing them?
  
  
  I have seen in movies where they will take payment and then say that the location will be given to the buyer later via a call or text. Is this enough evidence to charge the seller with crime? I have heard phrases like possession is 9/10 of the law. Then you hear of kingpins like El Chapo getting arrested and it makes you wonder. Seems like most kingpins never touch the merchandise at least on TV. Is it the same in real law?
  
  
  Could a dark web seller be charged selling drugs if they are never caught possessing them? You hear of dark web drug sales a lot on the net. Is this why it's so common?
  
  
  
title: Can an individual be charged with selling an illegal substance if they are not in possession?