body: In looking at Texas stalking laws, especially since 2015, in Section 42.072, it appears that even the following actions are illegal:
  
  
  Person A and Person B are in an online but intimate and romantic relationship. Both live in Texas.
  From time to time one of them gets upset at the other and blocks the other from their social media page. But at some point they make up and resume the relationship.
  
  
  Person A blocks Person B. This time for a month.
  
  
  Person B thinks something is wrong so Person B attempts to contact Person A using email, social media, phone, texts, etc. Person B attempts for a month to make contact.
  Person B sends several gifts to Person A's house. At no point does Person A respond in any way.
  
  
  None of the messages Person B sends threatens violence in any way, nor is intended to annoy, harass or embarrass. (words used in the new Texas law)
  
  
  Person B drove by Person A's house at one time, but didn't knock or attempt contact.
  
  
  These attempts went on for about 2 months. Person B then gives up.
  
  
  Person A then files stalking charges against Person B.
  
  
  From looking at Texas law, it appears that Person B has unwittingly committed several violations of the law if Person A feels annoyed in any way.
  
  
  Is this true? Or does there have to be intent? If so, how hard is intent to prove?
  
  
  
title: How broad are Texas' stalking laws now?