body: After posting [this question](https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/3488/is-it-legal-to-buy-second-hand-copyrighted-recordings/3514#3514), another one, more obvious came to mind.
  
  
  If the "first sale doctrine" is a widespread law, and allows someone to give their whole collection of VHS or DVDs or vinyls for free, then why is this rule not applying when it comes to a digital copy?
  
  
  If the first sale doctrine rule applied, then someone who legally purchased thousands of albums and movies digitally should be able to give these files for free to whoever they want.
  
  
  
title: Why is it legal to give away for free a physical copy of copyrighted material that you bought, but not a digital copy?