body: Article 1 section 9 part 8 says:
  
  
  
  > 
  > No Title of Nobility shall be granted by the United States: And no
  >  Person holding any Office of Profit or Trust under them, shall,
  >  without the Consent of the Congress, accept of any present, Emolument,
  >  Office, or Title, of any kind whatever, from any King, Prince, or
  >  foreign State.
  > 
  > 
  > 
  
  
  I would argue, logically, that when congress exempts itself from laws and taxes that all other citizens and legal residents of the US are required to comply with, based solely on their position of authority in the government this is a defacto title of nobility.
  
  
  The problem that the founders sought to counter with the prohibition on granting titles of nobility was not the honorific, but rather the special rights and benefits that would be conferred to those people that set them apart from, and make them above the laws that every one else is required to follow.
  
  
  Can a valid arguement be made in court that is in fact a violation of the Constitutional ban on awarding titles of nobility? Has this ever been tried before?
  
  
  
title: Does congress exempting themselves violate Article 1 Section 9(8) of the Constitution?