body: There are two parties to a contract. Call them Party1 and Party2. The contract will take effect when Party1 meets [condition precedent](https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/32384/what-is-a-condition-precedent) A, and Party2 meets condition precedent B.
  
  
  Party1 meets condition precedent A. Party2 does **not** meet condition precedent B. 
  
  
  My understanding is that Party1, having met his obligation, condition precedent A, can now enforce the contract against Party2. But Party2 can't enforce the contract against Party1 because he hasn't met condition precedent B.
  
  
  Is this, in fact, the case?
  
  
  
title: Is there such a thing as a "one way" contract?