body: I'm curious about the following scenario. If a business hires people and pays them a commission, is the employer obligated to be neutral in how it directs sales to each employee, in cases where the employees have substantially similar skill, experience, and quality of work, or is equal commission rates enough?
  
  
  For instance, if two car salespeople were paid the same amount per sale, but the dealership sent the majority of the potential customers to one of the two, even though they had substantially similar skill, experience, and quality of work, would that alone violate the [California Equal Pay Act](https://www.dir.ca.gov/dlse/california_equal_pay_act.htm)?
  
  
  To create a scenario, consider a garden center that pays a small wage, but for the most part, employees get their revenue from commissions. The owner hires on their daughter, and even though other employees do a lot of work in handling customers and making sure the shop runs smoothly, the owner directs customers to her daughter for the final sale, making it difficult for anyone to get commission. Technically the wage is the same, and the commission rate is the same. But the owner is ensuring a disproportionate opportunity to obtain revenue, for substantially similar work.
  
  
  
title: How does equal pay for substantially similar work (as per the California Equal Pay Act) apply to commissions?